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Top 100 PSC Civil Engineering Questions with Answers – Kerala

The most repeated and high-weightage MCQs from Kerala PSC civil engineering exams, with detailed answers and explanations. Essential for ITI, Diploma, B.Tech & AE aspirants.

By Wincentre Expert Team•Updated: April 2026•20 min read

This collection covers the most frequently tested civil engineering concepts in Kerala PSC examinations. These questions are drawn from actual past papers and expert analysis by Wincentre – Kerala's most trusted PSC civil coaching institute with 1000+ government job selections.

Each question includes the correct answer and a concise explanation so you understand the concept, not just memorise the answer. Work through each subject section systematically, and then reinforce your learning with unlimited practice on CivilEzy's Game Arena.

Pro Tip: Don't just check the answer – read every explanation, even for questions you got right. Understanding the 'why' is what separates top rankers from average scorers.

Soil Mechanics & Foundation Engineering

The ratio of volume of voids to total volume of soil is called:

A) Void ratio

✓B) Porosity

C) Degree of saturation

D) Air content

Explanation: Porosity (n) = Vv/V. Void ratio (e) = Vv/Vs. Both are related by n = e/(1+e).

Terzaghi's consolidation theory assumes that soil is:

A) Homogeneous and isotropic

B) Completely saturated

C) Singly drained

✓D) Both A and B

Explanation: Terzaghi's 1D consolidation theory assumes fully saturated, homogeneous, isotropic soil with Darcy's law valid.

Standard Penetration Test (SPT) N-value for very dense sand is:

A) < 4

B) 4–10

C) 30–50

✓D) > 50

Explanation: N > 50 indicates very dense sand or hard rock. N < 4 is very loose sand.

The angle of internal friction for loose sand is approximately:

A) 15°–20°

✓B) 28°–34°

C) 38°–45°

D) 10°–15°

Explanation: Loose sand: 28°–34°. Dense sand: 35°–45°. Clay has very low friction angle but significant cohesion.

Which type of foundation is suitable for black cotton soil?

A) Raft foundation

B) Strip foundation

✓C) Under-reamed pile foundation

D) Mat foundation

Explanation: Under-reamed piles are recommended for black cotton (expansive) soils as the bulb anchors below the active zone of swelling.

Structural Engineering & RCC Design

The modular ratio (m) in working stress method is:

A) Es/Ec

B) Ec/Es

C) 280/(3σcbc)

✓D) Both A and C

Explanation: Modular ratio m = Es/Ec = 280/(3σcbc) as per IS 456. For M20 concrete, m = 280/(3×7) ≈ 13.33.

In a simply supported beam, the bending moment is maximum at:

A) Supports

✓B) Midspan (for UDL)

C) Quarter span

D) Three-quarter span

Explanation: For a simply supported beam with UDL, max BM = wL²/8 at midspan. For point load at centre, max BM = PL/4.

The minimum grade of concrete to be used in RCC as per IS 456 is:

A) M10

B) M15

✓C) M20

D) M25

Explanation: IS 456:2000 specifies minimum M20 grade for RCC construction (M15 was the old requirement).

In limit state design, the partial safety factor for steel (γs) is:

A) 1.0

✓B) 1.15

C) 1.25

D) 1.5

Explanation: As per IS 456, γs = 1.15 for steel and γc = 1.5 for concrete in limit state design.

Q10

What is the effective depth of a beam if total depth = 500 mm, cover = 25 mm, and bar dia = 20 mm?

✓A) 465 mm

B) 475 mm

C) 455 mm

D) 470 mm

Explanation: Effective depth = Total depth – cover – half bar dia = 500 – 25 – 10 = 465 mm.

Fluid Mechanics & Hydraulics

Q11

Bernoulli's equation is based on the principle of:

A) Conservation of mass

✓B) Conservation of energy

C) Conservation of momentum

D) Newton's second law

Explanation: Bernoulli's theorem states that total energy (pressure + kinetic + potential) remains constant along a streamline for ideal flow.

Q12

The coefficient of discharge (Cd) for a standard orifice is approximately:

A) 0.99

B) 0.82

C) 0.64

✓D) 0.61

Explanation: For a sharp-edged orifice, Cd ≈ 0.61 = Cc × Cv (typically 0.64 × 0.97 ≈ 0.62, often taken as 0.61–0.64).

Q13

Manning's roughness coefficient 'n' for a smooth concrete pipe is approximately:

✓A) 0.010–0.013

B) 0.025–0.030

C) 0.035–0.040

D) 0.050–0.060

Explanation: Manning's n for smooth concrete: 0.011–0.013. Natural earth channel: 0.025–0.030. Gravel riverbed: 0.030–0.035.

Q14

Hydraulic jump occurs when flow changes from:

A) Sub-critical to super-critical

✓B) Super-critical to sub-critical

C) Laminar to turbulent

D) Turbulent to laminar

Explanation: A hydraulic jump is a rapidly varied flow transition from supercritical (Fr > 1) to subcritical (Fr < 1) with energy dissipation.

Q15

The unit of kinematic viscosity in SI system is:

A) Pa·s

B) N·s/m²

✓C) m²/s

D) kg/m·s

Explanation: Kinematic viscosity (ν) = dynamic viscosity / density = μ/ρ. Units = (N·s/m²) / (kg/m³) = m²/s (or Stokes in CGS).

Surveying

Q16

The prismatic compass reads bearings in which system?

✓A) Whole circle bearing (WCB)

B) Quadrantal bearing (QB)

C) Reduced bearing

D) True bearing only

Explanation: Prismatic compass uses WCB (0°–360° clockwise from North). Surveyor's compass uses QB (Quadrantal or Reduced Bearing).

Q17

In plane table surveying, which method is used when the station is inaccessible?

A) Radiation

✓B) Intersection

C) Traversing

D) Resection

Explanation: Intersection (graphic triangulation) is used to plot inaccessible points. Radiation is for accessible stations. Resection locates the plane table itself.

Q18

The 'closing error' in a closed traverse is eliminated by:

A) Bowditch's rule

B) Transit rule

C) Graphical adjustment

✓D) All of the above

Explanation: Closing error can be adjusted by Bowditch's rule (proportional to length), Transit rule (proportional to lat/dep), or graphically.

Q19

Contour interval is typically ______ for hilly terrain compared to plain terrain.

A) Smaller

B) Same

✓C) Larger

D) Zero

Explanation: For hilly terrain, a larger contour interval (e.g., 5–10 m) is used to prevent overcrowding of contour lines. Plain terrain uses 0.5–1 m.

Q20

Which instrument is used to measure horizontal and vertical angles in surveying?

A) Dumpy level

✓B) Theodolite

C) Planimeter

D) Clinometer

Explanation: Theodolite measures both horizontal and vertical angles. Dumpy level measures heights only. Planimeter measures areas.

Building Materials & Construction

Q21

The initial setting time of Ordinary Portland Cement (OPC) as per IS 269 is minimum:

A) 30 minutes

✓B) 45 minutes

C) 60 minutes

D) 90 minutes

Explanation: IS 269 specifies initial setting time ≥ 30 min for OPC (some references say 45 min). Final setting time ≤ 600 min (10 hours).

Q22

Water-cement ratio has a direct relationship with:

A) Workability only

B) Strength only

✓C) Both workability and strength (inversely)

D) Setting time only

Explanation: Lower W/C ratio = higher strength but lower workability. Higher W/C = more workable but weaker concrete (Abrams' law).

Q23

First class bricks have a minimum crushing strength of:

A) 3.5 N/mm²

B) 7.0 N/mm²

✓C) 10.5 N/mm²

D) 14.0 N/mm²

Explanation: As per IS 1077, first class bricks: 10.5 N/mm². Second class: 7.0 N/mm². Third class: 3.5 N/mm².

Q24

Admixture used to accelerate the setting time of concrete is:

A) Fly ash

✓B) Calcium chloride

C) Gypsum

D) Silica fume

Explanation: Calcium chloride is an accelerating admixture. Gypsum retards setting. Fly ash and silica fume are pozzolanic materials.

Q25

Which type of cement is best suited for marine structures?

A) OPC

B) Rapid hardening cement

✓C) Sulphate-resistant cement

D) High alumina cement

Explanation: Marine structures are exposed to sulfate-rich seawater. Sulphate-resistant cement (SRC) has low C3A content to resist sulfate attack.

Transportation Engineering

Q26

The ruling gradient recommended by IRC for plain and rolling terrain is:

A) 1 in 15

B) 1 in 20

✓C) 1 in 30

D) 1 in 40

Explanation: IRC recommends ruling gradient of 1 in 30 (3.3%) for plain/rolling terrain. Limiting gradient for hilly terrain: 1 in 15.

Q27

California Bearing Ratio (CBR) test is used to design:

A) Bridge foundations

✓B) Flexible pavements

C) Rigid pavements

D) Retaining walls

Explanation: CBR test measures subgrade strength for flexible pavement design. It compares penetration resistance to standard crushed rock.

Q28

The stopping sight distance depends on:

A) Speed and reaction time only

✓B) Friction, speed, and grade

C) Vehicle weight only

D) Road width only

Explanation: SSD = lag distance (vt) + braking distance (v²/2gf). It depends on design speed, driver reaction time, friction coefficient, and road gradient.

Environmental Engineering

Q31

BOD (Biochemical Oxygen Demand) measures:

A) Dissolved oxygen in water

B) Oxygen required for chemical oxidation

✓C) Oxygen consumed by microorganisms to decompose organic matter

D) Total dissolved solids

Explanation: BOD is the amount of O₂ (mg/L) consumed by bacteria during aerobic decomposition of organic matter over 5 days at 20°C (BOD₅).

Q32

The permissible limit of fluoride in drinking water as per IS 10500 is:

A) 0.5 mg/L

B) 1.0 mg/L

✓C) 1.5 mg/L

D) 2.0 mg/L

Explanation: IS 10500:2012 sets acceptable limit of fluoride at 1.0 mg/L and permissible limit at 1.5 mg/L. Excess causes fluorosis.

Q33

Sedimentation tanks in water treatment are designed based on:

✓A) Overflow rate (surface loading rate)

B) Detention time only

C) Velocity of flow only

D) BOD removal

Explanation: Sedimentation tanks are designed based on surface overflow rate (Q/A) and detention time. Overflow rate = flow / surface area.

Estimation & Costing

Q36

In PWD method of measurement, the volume of earthwork is calculated by:

A) Prismoidal formula

B) Trapezoidal formula

C) Simpson's rule

✓D) All of the above

Explanation: Earthwork volumes can be calculated by Prismoidal formula (most accurate), Trapezoidal (average end area), or Simpson's rule for 3+ sections.

Q37

The contingency amount in an estimate is typically:

A) 1–2% of project cost

✓B) 3–5% of project cost

C) 5–10% of project cost

D) 10–15% of project cost

Explanation: In Indian PWD estimates, contingency is generally taken as 3–5% of the estimated cost for unforeseen expenses.

Q38

Rate analysis is the process of:

A) Analyzing market rates

✓B) Determining unit cost of each item of work

C) Preparing bar charts

D) Calculating tender amounts

Explanation: Rate analysis determines the cost per unit for any item of work by analyzing material, labour, equipment, and overhead costs.

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